I'm drawing a blank as to "do I do this right, or what do I do wrong?". If you look at the following:
Note that there is no
ISC/MLAG between the two 460s.
Coworker and I are debating if the two ports on the Cisco stack need to be put in a LACP/channel-group or not. Neither of us has good enough arguments or detailed enough knowledge as to what exactly is happening, so if anyone could help, that'd be awesome!
- Is the above design reasonable/unreasonable/plain wrong?
- Do the Cisco ports need to be configured as two regular normal trunked/tagged ports, or do they need to be configured as channel/lacp/shared ports?
- or would they only need to be lacp ports if (and only if) the 460s would get an ISC/MLAG between them?
At this point I'm not sure if I could be trusted to connect two tin cans with a string!
Thanks for you help,