We have a situation where multiple "clients" share the same uplink. For the sake of isolation and ease of recognition, I'd considered moving to PVLans instead of using the same VLAN for all traffic. However, it seems that in order to use PVLans, the port that the translation occurs on has to be untagged. Is this accurate?
Our ideal scenario:
Network VLAN 2 - Internet Traffic
Subscriber VLAN 21 - Client #1 traffic
Subscriber VLAN 22 - Client #2 traffic
Subscriber VLAN 23 - Client #3 traffic
VLAN 3 - Non-internet traffic to ISP
VLAN 4 - Non-internet traffic to ISP
Switch 1:
PVLAN configured
Port 1:1 - Uplink to ISP. Translation port VLAN 2,3,4
Port 1:2 - Link to Switch 2 Non-translation port VLAN 2,21,22,23,3,4
Port 1:3 - Link to Switch 3 Non-translation port VLAN 22,3,4
Switch 2:
PVLAN configured
Port 1:1 - Link to Switch 1 VLAN 2,21,22,23,3,4 non translation port
Port 1:2 - Link to client 1 VLAN 21
Port 1:3 - Link to client 2 VLAN 22
Port 1:4 - Link to client 3 VLAN 23
Port 1:5 - VLAN 3
Port 1:6 - VLAN 4
Switch 3:
No PVLAN configured
Port 1:1 - Link to Switch 1 VLAN 22,3,4
Port 1:2 - Link to client 2 VLAN 22
Port 1:3 - VLAN 3
Port 1:4 - VLAN 4
It appears that this may be better handled by the non-pvlan VLAN translation feature, though then I lose the isolation features.
Am I missing anything here?